Question Paper

Exam 70-293  Questions Bank

Curriculum : ACNA 2008

Core : 70-293

Duration : 1 hour

1. Which of the following operating systems can act as an Active Directory client and join the

domain using a computer  account?

A. Windows 95

B. Windows 98

C. Windows Me

D. Windows 2000 Professional

E. Windows XP Home Edition

Answer D

2. Which editions of Windows could you use for 4-node clustering with 8 processors and 32 GB

RAM?

A. Windows Server 2003, Web Edition

B. Windows Server 2003, Standard Edition

C. Windows Server 2003, Enterprise Edition

D. Windows Server 2003, Datacenter Edition

Answers C and D

3. Although you can use the Configure Your Server  Wizard to configure a server as domain

controller, which program or utility do you use to promote or demote a domain controller?

A. NETSH DIAG

B. DCPROMO.EXE

C. Active Directory Users And Computers

D. NTDSUTIL.EXE

E. LSASS.EXE

Answer B

4. Mary is a network administrator  who has been given the task of configuration on a new file

server. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition has already been installed. The file server has

three hard drives formatted with NTFS. The C drive is the system drive. Drives D and G are

data drives. Assuming the default filesystem permissions are in place, which of the following

tasks must be performed to ensure that only domain users have full permissions on the data

drives?

A. The Ever yone group should be granted Full Control on Drives D and G.

B. The Domain Users group should be granted Full Control on Drives D and G.

C. Permissions for the Ever yone group should be removed from Drives D and G.

D. Permissions for the Authenticated Users group should be removed from Drives D and G.

Answers B and C

5. Mary is a network administrator  who has been given the task of configuration on a new file

server. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition has already been installed. The file server has

three hard drives formatted with NTFS. The C drive is the system drive. Drives D and G are

data drives. After configuring filesystem per missions, Mar y created a shared folder on each data

drive for users. What configuration option should Mary choose to ensure administrators have

Full Control on the shared folders and other users have Change access?

A. All Users Have Read-Only Access.

B. Administrators Have Full Access; Other Users Have Read-Only Access.

C. Administrators Have Full Access; Other Users Have Read And Write Access.

D. None of the above; the administrator  must configure custom permissions.

Answer C

6. John is a new system administrator. He is configuring security for several new workstations

running Windows XP Professional. The computers are members of the Temp OU, and he

noticed that users are able to reuse old passwords whenever they are prompted to change them.

Which of the following account policies can be used to prevent this behavior?

A. Enforce Password History

B. Maximum Password Age

C. Minimum Password Age

D. Store Passwords Using Reversible Encryption

Answer A

7. While continuing to look at the domain security for the Temp OU, John noticed that a user was

able to repeatedly enter a wrong password. He watched the user enter eight bad passwords in a

row before finally getting the right password on the ninth attempt. Which of the following

account policies can be set to ensure accounts are locked out indefinitely after 3 bad logon

attempts in a 15-minute period?

A. Account Lockout Duration

B. Account Lockout Threshold

C. Reset Account Lockout Counter  After

D. All of the above

Answer D .

8. You've just promoted a server running Windows Server 2003 to be a domain controller. After

you log on to the server, you run the Security Configuration And Analysis tool and notice

security settings aren't what you expect them to be. What is the most likely reason for the

security changes on the server?

A. Domain controllers don't have local security settings, and during promotion, any

previously applied secur ity template is removed.

B. During promotion, domain controllers are made members of the Domain Controllers OU

and have the DC Security template applied during promotion.

C. Domain controllers don't have a SAM database and use only Active Directory for

security.

D. During promotion, domain controllers are configured with default security using the

Setup Security template.

Answer B

9. What is the proper way to create and then apply a custom security template to a computer?

A. Use the Security Templates snap-in to create a custom template, configure the security

settings as necessar y, and then apply the settings using Security Configuration And

Analysis.

B. Create a database in Security Configuration And Analysis, modify the security settings

as necessary, and then apply the database to the computer.

C. Create a database in Security Configuration And Analysis, modify the security settings

as necessary, and then apply the settings using the SECEDIT utility.

D. Create a database in the SECEDIT utility, modify the security settings as necessary in

Security Configuration And Analysis, and then apply the template to the computer using

the Security Templates snap-in.

Answer A

10. You have created a custom template for computers in the Workstations OU. After creating a

rollback template and applying the custom template, you found that the template has caused

some undesir able side effects. Which of the following procedures would correct the problem by

restoring the previous security settings exactly as they were?

A. Reapply the default template using Security Configuration And Analysis, and then

import this into the Workstation GPO.

B. Use Security Configuration And Analysis to apply a rollback template and then import

this into the Workstation GPO.

C. Use Security Configuration And Analysis to apply a rollback template, import this into

the Workstation GPO, and then manually modify for access control lists on files and in

the Registr y as necessary.

D. Import the default template into Workstation GPO.

Answer C

11. Which OSI layer is responsible for packet addressing and data encapsulation?

A. Application

B. Session

C. Transport

D. Network

E. Data-link

Answer E

12. Which of the following protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite?

A. Transmission Control Protocol

B. Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)

C. User Datagr am Protocol (UDP)

D. Internet Package Exchange (IPX)

E. NetBIOS Extended User Interf ace (NetBEUI)

Answers A, B, and C

13. You are planning the infrastructure for a new network. The data center is centrally located, and

the furthest location from the data center is 400 meters. The longest cable runs are 480 meters

from the central switch and your plan allows you to use up to 4 repeaters. Which of the

following UTP cabling options could be used?

A. 10Base-T, Category 3 UTP

B. 100Base-T, Category 5 UTP

C. 1000Base-T, Category 5E UTP

D. None of the above

Answer A.

14. You are designing a new network and plan to use Class C IP addresses. You want to be able to

create 4 subnets with 60 hosts on each subnet, so you allocate 26 bits to the network ID. Which

of the following subnet masks should you use for the network?

A. 255.255.255.128

B. 255.255.255.192

C. 255.255.255.224

D. 255.255.255.240

Answer B

15. You are designing a network for a large branch office and have been assigned the network

address 10.10.0.0/18. What are the maximum number of subnets and the maximum number of

hosts on each subnet?

A. 64 subnets; 262,142 hosts

B. 128 subnets; 131,070 hosts

C. 256 subnets; 65,534 hosts

D. 512 subnets; 32,766 hosts

E. 1024 subnets; 16,382 hosts

Answer E

16. You are designing a network and plan to use subnetting. You plan to use services running

Routing And Remote Access Service to provide IP routing for unicast network traffic. Which

routing protocols can you use?

A. RIP version 1

B. RIP version 2

C. OSPF

D. IGMP

Answers B and C

17. You are installing a network in an office located above a factory floor and there is a lot of

electromagnetic interference. Which of the following network media should you use?

A. UTP cabling

B. B Fiber optic cabling

C. IEEE 802.11a wireless

D. IEEE 802.11b wireless

Answer B .

18. You are designing an Internet connectivity strategy for a large office with 500 users. You've

determined that between 50 and 100 users will be using email or browsing the Web at any given

time. The amount of data downloaded is about equal to the amount of data uploaded. Which of

the following Internet access solutions would provide the most reliable solution for both

downstream and upstream transmissions?

A. ISDN (Basic Rate Interf ace)

B. ISDN (Primary Rate Interf ace)

C. Cable/DSL Modem

D. T-1

Answer D

19. You are a network administer at a large organization. The company has a T-1 connection to a

local ISP, which is shared by all clients. Clients access the Internet using NAT. Several users

have reported that they can't access the Internet. You start diagnosing the problem and find that

all users reporting the problem are on the same subnet. Users on other subnets are not

exper iencing any problems accessing the Internet. Which of the following could be the cause of

the problem?

A. The NAT router is malfunctioning.

B. The T-1 connection is down.

C. The users' DNS Server is down.

D. The users' default gateway for the subnet is malfunctioning.

E. The users' DHCP server is down.

Answer D

20. When clients obtain TCP/IP settings from a DHCP server, which of the following options

should be configured via DHCP?

A. IP Address

B. Subnet Mask

C. Network ID

D. Router

Answer D

21. DNS servers can be configured to perfor m name resolution using several types of queries. With

which type of query does the server return results only form its records or from its cache?

A. Forward query

B. Reverse query

C. Iterative query

D. Recursive query

Answer C

22. Tom is a network administrator. He's been asked to improve responsiveness for name resolution

by configur ing a local DNS server that will maintain a cache of resolved queries. What should

Tom do to prepare the server?

A. Install the DNS Server service.

B. Install the DNS Server service, and then configure the server as a forwarder.

C. Install the DNS Server service, and then configure server to maintain copies of the

necessary zones.

D. Install the DNS Server service, and then configure server to host the necessary zones.

Answer A .

23. Sarah is a network administrator. The network's domain structure has recently been

reconf igured, and ever since, there are several clients that are unable to update their DNS

records. She checked and all the clients having problems are in Technical resources department,

which is part of the tech.domain.local domain. She suspects the problem has to do with the

preferred DNS server the clients are using. The preferred DNS server for these clients hosts the

eng.domain.local domain. What is the best and easiest way to resolve the problem?

A. The computer accounts for the problem clients should be moved to the eng.domain.local

domain.

B. The DNS server should be moved to the tech.domain.local domain.

C. The primary DNS suffix for the computers should be changed to eng.domain.local

domain.

D. The preferr ed DNS server being used for the clients should be changed.

Answer D .

24. You are a network administrator. Multiple users have reported that they can access some local

resources but not all, and they have no access to resources on the Internet. You try to diagnose

the problem and find that the preferred DNS server used by the clients having the problem can

only resolve names for zones stored on the server. The TCP/IP settings on the DNS server are

configur ed correctly. What is the likely cause of the problem?

A. The DNS server has incorrect or corrupt root hints.

B. The DNS server's resolver cache is corrupted.

C. The DNS server is not getting zone transfers.

D. The DNS server doesn't have any forwarders configured.

Answer A

25. Which routing protocol should use to enable members of a host group to register themselves

with routers?

A. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) version 2 for Internet Protocol

B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

C. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)

D. DHCP Relay Agent routing protocol

Answer C

26. You are planning routing for a large, congested network. Many network segments are separated

by at least 12 hops. You are considering using either link state routing or distance vector routing

on a computer  running Windows Server 2003. Which of the following are valid reasons link

state routing would be preferred in this instance?

A. Link state routing uses only the number of hops for its metrics.

B. Links state routing factors in conditions such as network speed and congestion.

C. Link state routing requires little planning and is easy to configure.

D. Link state routing supports multicast for efficient communications with multiple routers.

Answer B

27. Which of the following authentication protocols is required when you want to use digital

cer tificates?

A. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

B. Microsoft Encrypted Authentication version 2 (MS-CHAP v2)

C. Microsoft Encrypted Authentication (MS-CHAP)

D. Encrypted Authentication (CHAP)

E. Shiva Password Authentication Protocol (SPAP)

Answer A

28. You are configuring remote access and want to limit client access to the Routing And Remote

Access Service server based on group membership. Which of the following procedur es can you

use?

A. Set the Dial-in properties for users in Active Director y Users And Computers.

B. Configure clients to use VPN with IPSec and L2TP.

C. Configure clients to use RADIUS servers for authentication.

D. Configure the server to use remote access policies.

Answer D

29. You are configuring IPSec policy for a group of computers that you want to use IPSec

encr yption whenever possible. However, some of the clients in the group don't support IPSec.

Which of the following IPSec policies should you use?

A. Client (Respond Only)  policy.

B. Server (Request Security) policy.

C. Secure Server (Require Security) policy.

D. A custom IPSec policy must be created.

Answer B

30. You want to create a group of highly available web servers. All servers are running Windows

Server 2003 and are used to provide HTTP and HTTPS services on the internal network. Which

high-availability software solution should you use?

A. Network Load Balancing

B. Component Load Balancing

C. Server clusters

D. Multicasting Server Grouping

Answer A

31. Which type of clustering uses shared storage and stores the cluster configuration and recovery

data on the same device?

A. Passive-node clusters

B. Single-node server clusters

C. Single quorum device server clusters

D. Majority node server clusters

Answer C

32. You are configuring a four-node cluster on servers running Windows Server 2003 Enterprise

Edition. If all four nodes are active, you've determined that at least four processors and 4 GB of

RAM are required on each server to handle the expected workload. You also think you might

want to use two active nodes and two passive nodes. What are the minimum configurations to

handle the workload and allow for two-node failure?

A. Configure four active nodes each with at least eight processors and 8 GB RAM.

B. Configure two active nodes and two passive each with at least four processors and 4 GB

RAM.

C. Configure 4 active nodes each with at least 32 processors and 16 GB RAM.

D. Configure 2 active nodes and 2 passive each with at least 16 processors and 32 GB

RAM.

Answer A

33. Which of the following performance counters could you use to determine a possible problem

with memory or a memor y leak?

A. Process(process_name)\Pool Paged Bytes

B. Memory\Available Kbytes

C. Memory\Nonpaged Kbytes

D. Processor\%Processor Time

Answers A, B, and C .

34. Which of the following features can you use to supplement backups and allow users to recover

their own files?

A. Volume Shadow Copy

B. Automated System Recovery

C. Automatic Supplemental Restore

D. Normal backup

Answer A

35. Which type of backup should you use if you want to track the full set of changes since the last

normal backup?

A. Incremental backups

B. Copy backups

C. Daily backups

D. Differential backups

Answer D

36. Which tool can you use to deter mine which ports a server has open?

A. NETSH

B. NETSTAT

C. Security Configuration And Analysis

D. Security Monitor

Answer B

37. Which of the following are assigned by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)?

A. Well-known port numbers

B. Ephermer al numbers

C. Protocol codes

D. Listen Pids

Answers A and C

38. You've configured IP filter lists so IPSec encrypts email traffic. The organization uses Post

Office Protocol 3 (POP3) and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). For which of the

following well-known ports should you configur e the filter list?

A. 25

B. 80

C. 90

D. 110

Answers A and D

39. Bob, who is not an administr ator, is commonly asked to help Joe with computer problems. Your

manager has asked you to configure Bob's account so Bob can remotely assist Joe. Which of the

following tasks must you perform to allow Bob to do this?

A. Enable Remote Desktop for Administration on Joe's computer.

B. Enable Remote Assistance on Joe's computer.

C. Make Bob a member of the Remote Desktop Users group on Joe's computer.

D. Make Bob a member of the Remote Administrators group on Joe's computer.

Answers B and C .

40. You don't want wireless clients to be able to connect directly to other wireless clients. Which

wireless operating modes should you use to ensure that clients can only connect to wireless

access points?

A. Any Available Network (Access Point Preferred)

B. Access Point (Infrastructur e) Networks Only

C. Computer-to-Computer (Ad Hoc) Networks Only

D. Ad Hoc Networks Only

Answer B

41. Which of the following audit policies should you enable to log all IPSec events in the Security

event log?

A. Audit Logon Events

B. Audit Policy Change

C. Audit Security

D. Audit IP Policy

Answers A and B

42. Which type of Certificate Authority (CA) must you use if you want to use smart card

cer tificates?

A. Stand-alone CA

B. Domain CA

C. Enterprise CA

D. Subordinate CA

Answer C

43. You are planning the deployment of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI). You want the CAs to

publish their certif icates and revocation lists to Active Directory, and you want to use

autoenrollment. Which of the following is the first CA you should deploy to support your

infrastructure?

A. Enterprise root CA

B. Enterprise subordinate CA

C. Stand-alone root CA

D. Stand-alone subordinate CA

Answer A

44. You've implemented IPSec and now you want to check to make sure it is working. Which of the

following tools can you use to monitor the network to make sure all network transmissions are

using IPSec?

A. Performance Monitor

B. System Monitor

C. Network Monitor

D. IP Security Monitor

Answer D